I suppose we draw the wave V. Why do I think so:
1) A new wave IV draw the ideal channel and stopped exactly in the end of the wave I.
2) Wave ( ) and wave (triangle) alternate, according to rule of alternation in
3) Wave II (triangle) and wave IV ( ) alternate, according to rule of alternation in
Following next the first significant price targets (But before that, we need to finish zigzan in wave IV. But we do not have to go significantly below 1.32048):
Glad to hear your comments.
P.S. I did not notice that waves and on the chart moved out a bit and should be located to the right, outside the wave . Sorry about that.