you have placed the 2nd bar from the pin bar low 1.3637
but, the original red bar is not measured from the low pin bar
to high pin bar --- what is your reasoning for these being
equal harmonic measured moves ?
It seems like an orange to apple comparison to me.
Thanks for your thoughts and reasoning !!!
1. first red bar goes from 1.35293 to 1.37958 and i treat it as first wave,
2. than it goes second wave, to 61.8 fibo od first wave - which is 1.363 (more or less, im not very precise ;))
3. I suppose that next wave will hit 1.618 of first wave (first red bar), where is also 2.618 of fibo extension from lowest point of second wave, and top od first wave :) and also, I see there a supply/demand zone which should work as resistance...
as I said, im not sure... but I think, tonite fomc won't taper, and they will leave qe3 as it is, which will surpise the market ;)
come off that way when not talking person to person.
I was just wondering why you would use low of the second wave, as you just stated,
for the start of the 2nd red bar,
not use the low or full distance of the 1st wave for the 1st red bar.
If harmonics is your goal then it seems to me that unequal measures
will lead to unequal outcome.
thanks for your thougths, just wondering, not arguing from the
point of view that either one of us is right or wrong.
(of course, if anyone asks it's me) LOL