Pattern details and a trade plan:
Swing identificaiton: prex(6)
Entry(limit order): 0.6XA
Stoploss(stop order): 1XA
Target(limit order): 1 to 1 RR
First bar in history: 1999/01/04 9:00:00
Total patterns found: 34
Number of winners: 17
Average winner: 52.7 pips
Probability of win: 50.00%
Average RR: 1.45
I see that this pattern methodology is 1R (1:1RR), if strategy is 50% accurate, and 1R, then the real "R"-expectancy should be 0, break even.
The reason why expectancy is 0,22 is because "avg win in pips" > "avg loss in pips", and it turns into 1.45R, so we should use fixed lot sizing, cause if we use fixed % to make every pattern the same (as once you told in your videos you believed better performance), it would be a BE strategy.
So questions: Why do you call it "R"-expectancy then? ; Do you still believe fixed % per trade to make every pattern the same (no matter size of pattern, candles, etc) is still best? Or you are back to the Scott Carney way of fixed lot size MM?
Thanks for all of the work you put out there, especially the ideas that make us think and develop. Best regards
you need to do what your trade plan says.:)